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Free CPMA Practice Questions

10 free, exam-style Certified Professional Medical Auditor (CPMA) practice questions with answers and explanations. No signup required. Work through them below, then take the full free CPMA practice test to study every exam domain.

Question 1

An internal audit reveals that a primary care physician appends modifier 25 to the office E/M code on every encounter where any minor procedure is performed - including routine joint injections preceded only by a brief assessment of the injection site. The MOST appropriate audit finding is:

  1. Compliant: modifier 25 is required whenever an E/M and a procedure are performed together
  2. Non-compliant: routine pre-procedure assessment is not a separately identifiable E/M service
  3. Compliant: documentation of distinct diagnoses for E/M and procedure supports modifier 25
  4. Non-compliant: modifier 25 cannot be appended to E/M codes paired with minor procedures
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B - Non-compliant: routine pre-procedure assessment is not a separately identifiable E/M service

Question 2

A 68-year-old established patient presents to her primary care office for a scheduled follow-up. The provider documents two stable chronic conditions (hypertension and type 2 diabetes), reviews the most recent A1C result, and continues all current medications without changes. Total time on the date of encounter is 18 minutes. The MOST appropriate code for this visit is:

  1. 99212 - straightforward MDM supported by minimal documented total time
  2. 99213 - low MDM based on stable chronic conditions with limited data
  3. 99214 - moderate MDM driven by chronic disease management complexity
  4. 99215 - high MDM with active prescription drug management decisions
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B - 99213 - low MDM based on stable chronic conditions with limited data

Question 3

A compliance officer is evaluating two regulatory exposures: (a) a physician's spouse owns shares in a hospital to which the physician refers Medicare patients, and (b) the same physician was offered (and declined) a cash payment in exchange for referrals. Which statement BEST captures the PRIMARY legal distinction between the Stark Law and the Anti-Kickback Statute?

  1. Stark applies only to physicians, while the AKS applies to all healthcare providers
  2. Stark covers federal payers only, while the AKS extends to commercial insurance
  3. Stark is strict-liability civil law, while the AKS requires intent and is criminal
  4. Stark requires written safe harbors, while the AKS relies on regulatory exceptions
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C - Stark is strict-liability civil law, while the AKS requires intent and is criminal

Question 4

A nurse practitioner sees a Medicare patient in a physician's office for a NEW complaint of right-sided abdominal pain. The supervising physician - who has previously treated this patient for unrelated chronic hypertension - is in the office suite during the encounter. The visit is billed under the physician's NPI at 100% of the Medicare fee schedule. The MOST significant compliance issue is:

  1. Direct supervision was not satisfied because the physician did not personally see the patient
  2. Incident-to is invalid because the physician did not initiate treatment for this new problem
  3. Split/shared rules require documentation of substantive portion performed by the physician
  4. The visit must be billed under the NP's own NPI at 85% of the Medicare fee schedule
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B - Incident-to is invalid because the physician did not initiate treatment for this new problem

Question 5

A Medicare contractor performs a statistically valid random sample of 150 claims from a universe of 4,200 claims. After projecting the findings, the point estimate of overpayment is $284,000, with a 90% one-sided lower confidence limit of $217,500 and an upper confidence limit of $351,000. Under MPIM Chapter 8 guidance, the demanded repayment will typically be:

  1. $284,000 - the point estimate represents the best statistical estimate of overpayment
  2. $351,000 - the upper confidence limit ensures full recovery for the Medicare program
  3. $133,500 - the difference between the point estimate and the lower confidence limit
  4. $217,500 - the lower confidence limit gives the provider the benefit of statistical doubt
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D - $217,500 - the lower confidence limit gives the provider the benefit of statistical doubt

Question 6

During a compliance review, a hospital's compliance officer discovers an arrangement with a referring physician that constitutes BOTH a technical Stark Law violation AND a potential Anti-Kickback Statute violation. To resolve both exposures through self-disclosure with the most efficient outcome, the hospital should pursue:

  1. OIG Self-Disclosure Protocol - covers AKS and combined Stark plus AKS conduct
  2. CMS Self-Referral Disclosure Protocol - addresses Stark and indirectly resolves AKS
  3. Sequential filings: SRDP for the Stark issue followed by SDP for the AKS issue
  4. Direct refund to the MAC under the 60-day overpayment rule for both issues combined
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A - OIG Self-Disclosure Protocol - covers AKS and combined Stark plus AKS conduct

Question 7

A general surgeon performs an open cholecystectomy on January 5. On January 22 - within the 90-day global period - the same patient returns to the office for evaluation of unrelated right knee pain following a fall at home. The surgeon performs and documents a separate problem-focused E/M for the knee complaint. To correctly report the knee E/M, the surgeon should append:

  1. Modifier 24 - unrelated E/M by the same physician during a postoperative period
  2. Modifier 25 - significant, separately identifiable E/M on the same day as a procedure
  3. Modifier 57 - decision for major surgery made during an E/M visit before surgery
  4. Modifier 79 - unrelated procedure by the same physician during a postoperative period
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A - Modifier 24 - unrelated E/M by the same physician during a postoperative period

Question 8

An auditor reviewing 30 randomly selected encounters from a single provider observes that the History of Present Illness, Review of Systems, and Physical Examination sections appear word-for-word identical across multiple visits for the same patient - and identical across different patients with similar chief complaints. The PRIMARY audit concern is:

  1. Documentation efficiency that should be expanded across all providers in the practice
  2. Cloned documentation that creates a mandatory 60-day reporting obligation to the OIG
  3. EHR template use that may not reflect the actual content of each individual encounter
  4. Inadvertent violation of HIPAA's minimum necessary standard within the medical record
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C - EHR template use that may not reflect the actual content of each individual encounter

Question 9

A gastroenterologist performs a diagnostic colonoscopy in the morning, then later the same day performs a separate, distinct esophagogastroduodenoscopy at a different session for a different clinical indication. NCCI procedure-to-procedure edits would normally bundle these services. To correctly report both procedures and override the bundling, CMS prefers the use of:

  1. Modifier 59 - distinct procedural service (the modifier of last resort)
  2. Modifier 51 - multiple procedures performed at the same operative session
  3. Modifier 91 - repeat clinical diagnostic test performed on the same day
  4. Modifier XE - separate encounter, distinct from the other reported service
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D - Modifier XE - separate encounter, distinct from the other reported service

Question 10

An auditor is reviewing an inpatient admission dated March 15, 2024. The admitting hospitalist documents the encounter using time-based selection, recording exactly 50 minutes of total time on the date of admission. No MDM-based level is documented. Under the 2023 E/M guidelines, the appropriate code is:

  1. 99221 - initial hospital inpatient/observation, 40 minutes must be met or exceeded
  2. 99222 - initial hospital inpatient/observation, 55 minutes must be met or exceeded
  3. 99223 - initial hospital inpatient/observation, 75 minutes must be met or exceeded
  4. 99232 - subsequent hospital inpatient/observation, 35 minutes must be met or exceeded
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A - 99221 - initial hospital inpatient/observation, 40 minutes must be met or exceeded

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